• Written By Zeshan Naz
  • Last Modified 27-01-2023

Current Affairs May 2022 – Check Latest Top Stories

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GK & Current Affairs May 2022: GK & Current Affairs can be the easiest and most scoring section in all government, bank and other competitive exams when the right focus is applied. The majority of the questions from competitive entrance exams will be based on daily current affairs which are also known as dynamic GK. It is very important for the aspirants of any government, or bank jobs to stay updated on the dynamic GK since it changes from time to time. And staying up to date with all current affairs may be easier with this article.

Current Affairs May is specifically designed by our academic experts to provide you with the top news and information on that particular day. With our Current affairs May, you will never feel the need to visit multiple outlets for quality information. Moreover, current affairs May is helpful in the preparation of various competitive exams such as IBPS, UPSC, SSC, Bank PO, Bank Clerk, IBPS, Railways, Government Jobs, UPPSC, MPSC, and other state exams, all at one place i.e., here at Embibe.

Atal New India Challenge 2.0

Polity

Phase 1 of the second iteration of the Atal New India Challenge was launched by the Atal Innovation Mission (ANIC 2.0). In 2018, ANIC 1.0 was launched as a clarion cry to deliver essential ideas and technologies to the masses.

What does the Atal New India Challenge entail?

  • The Atal New India Challenge is a flagship programme of the NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.
  • The program aims to identify, select, promote, and develop technology-based ideas that address national and societal concerns.
  • ANIC seeks prototype-stage technologies and helps selected start-ups through the commercialization stage from a 12 to 18-month period.

Qs. Which of the following is not the initiative of the Atal Innovation Mission?

A. Atal Research and Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE)

B. Atal Tinkering Labs

C. Atal Incubation Centers

D. Atal Start-Up Campaign

Ans: D

  • Major Initiatives are Atal Tinkering Labs, Atal Incubation Centers, Atal New India Challenges, Mentor India Campaign, Atal Community Innovation Center and Atal Research and Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE).

Sloth Bear

Environment

Forest officers recently rescued two sloth bears from a village in Jharkhand by the People for Animals organisation. Maneka Gandhi started the People for Animals (PFA) animal welfare group.

  • Madaris had alerted the PFA. Madaris are a nomadic people that make a living by performing animal-based street entertainment.
  • Sloth bears can be found in lowland parts of Sri Lanka, India, Bhutan, and Nepal.
  • Sloth bears consume termites and ants primarily, and unlike other bear species, they frequently carry their young on their backs.
  • Honey is also a favourite food, hence the nickname “honey bear.” Hibernation does not occur in sloth bears.
  • Melursus ursinus (scientific name)
  • It is a forest-dwelling bear from the Ursidae family (which includes eight species of bears) that lives in India and Sri Lanka’s tropical and subtropical climates.

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for CITES?

A. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international agreement.

B. CITES entered into force in July 1973 and currently, there are 183 Parties.

C. CITES also includes so-called “look-alike species”, and currently 34,419 species are listed.

D. The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP (The United Nations Environment Programme) and is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Ans: B

  • CITES entered into force in July 1975.

India Semiconductor Mission

Polity

The first-ever Semicon India 2022 Conference under the India Semiconductor Mission was recently held in Bengaluru by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

Semicon India was created in 2022 to carry out Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s objective of making India a global leader in electronics manufacturing, semiconductor design, manufacturing, and innovation. The theme of the Conference: Catalyzing India’s Semiconductor Ecosystem.

What is the Semiconductor Mission of India?

  • The ISM was launched in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, with Rs76,000 crore (MeitY).
  • It’s part of the country’s overall strategy for developing a sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem.
  • The program aims to help companies invest in semiconductors, display production, and the design ecosystem.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. India’s own consumption of semiconductors is expected to cross USD 80 billion by 2026 and to USD 110 billion by 2030.

b. The industry of ICs is dominated by the United States of America, Taiwan, South Korea, Japan and the Netherlands.

c. MeitY will take the requisite steps for the modernization and commercialization of the Semi-conductor Laboratory (SCL).

d. Incentive support to the tune of Rs.55,392 crore (7.5 billion USD) has been approved under Product Linked Incentive (PLI) for Largest Scale Electronics Manufacturing.

Which of the following given statements is/are incorrect?

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & c

C. b, c & d

D. None of the above

Ans: D

Anabolic Steroids

Polity

Two Indian track and field athletes tested positive for illegal anabolic steroids during the Tokyo Olympics.

Anabolic Steroids: 

  • Bodybuilders are the most common users of anabolic steroids.
  • They’re basically lab-made replicas of the male hormone testosterone, and they increase muscle mass in the same way that the natural hormone does.
  • It also increases male traits like facial hair and a deeper voice in a person.
  • Anabolic steroids, on the other hand, are not the same as the steroids that doctors prescribe for inflammation, autoimmune illnesses, or to suppress the immune system during a Covid-19 infection.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. A 2019 study from Bhubaneshwar of anabolic steroid users showed that only one of the 74 participants was a professional bodybuilder, with 18.9 % being students, indicating that it is used by people other than professional athletes.

b. Although no concrete estimate exists of the number of people using the drug across India, a 2018 study from Jammu and Kashmir found that 7.1 % of athletes used it.

Which of the following given statements is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both a & b

D. None of the above

Ans: C

World Pressdom Index 2022

Polity

On World Pressdom Day (WPFD) (3 May), Reporters Without Borders released the 20th edition of the World Pressdom Index (RSF).

What is the World Pressdom Index, and how does it work?

  • Since 2002, Reporters Sans Frontières (RSF) or Reporters Without Borders has released it annually.
  • RSF is a Paris-based non-governmental organisation with consultative status at the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe, and the International Organization of the Francophonie (OIF).
  • The Organization of French-Speaking Countries (OIF) is a group of 54 French-speaking countries.
  • The Index ranks countries and regions based on the level of journalisticdom they have. It is not, however, a measure of the quality of journalism.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. Norway (1st) Denmark (2nd), China (3rd) Estonia (4th) and Russia (5th) grabbed the top positions.

b. North Korea remained at the bottom of the list of 180 countries.

c. India has fallen eight places from 142nd to 150th in 2022 among the 180 countries.

d. The index placed Pakistan in 157th position, Sri Lanka 146th, Bangladesh 162nd and Myanmar in 176th position.

Which of the following given statements is/are incorrect?

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & c

C. b, c & d

D. None of the above

Ans: A

  • Norway (1st) Denmark (2nd), Sweden (3rd) Estonia (4th) and Finland (5th) grabbed the top positions. Russia was placed in 155th position. China was ranked at 175th position.

Anang Tal Lake

Polity

The Ministry of Culture recently ordered the historic Anang Tal lake in South Delhi to be restored. The National Monuments Authority (NMA) and the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) have requested that restoration efforts be expedited so that the site might be proclaimed a National Monument.

What are the most important points?

  • The lake is located in Mehrauli, Delhi, and is said to have been built in 1,060 AD by Tomar King Anangpal II.
  • In the 11th century, he is said to have founded and populated Delhi.
  • The millennia-old Anang Tal marks the start of Delhi.
  • Anang Tal has a strong Rajasthan link, as Maharaja Anangpal is Prithviraj Chauhan’s nana (maternal grandfather), and his fort Rai Pithora is on the ASI list.

Qs. Which historic lake is to be restored by the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) in Mehrauli, established by Tomar King Anangpal II in 1,060 AD )?

A. Tilyar 

B. Sultanpur 

C. Surajkund 

D. Anang Tal 

Ans: D

Unique Disability ID Scheme

Polity

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment recently requested that states speed up the implementation of the Unique Disability ID (UDID) scheme for PwD in 75 districts.

The campaign’s goal was to cover all 17 Central plans in all 75 districts.

What exactly is UDID?

  • The Unique ID for Persons with Disabilities project is being implemented to build a National Database for PwDs and issue each person with a Unique Disability Identity Card.
  • The goal is to enable PwDs to obtain a new UDID card / Disability Certificate so that they can take advantage of government initiatives and benefits offered by various Ministries and Departments.

Qs. How many districts will be covered under the UDID Scheme planned to cover all 17 Central projects?

A. 55

B. 65

C. 75

D. 85

Ans: C

State of the World’s Forests 2022

Environment


The UN Food and Agriculture Organization recently published the State of the World’s Forests 2022 report (SOFO 2022). (FAO). The India State of Forest Report-2021 was published by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in January 2022.

140 countries signed the Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use, pledging to end forest loss by 2030 and to support forest restoration and sustainable production and consumption.

The Key Highlights of the Report.

  • Despite the fact that forests comprise 4.06 billion ha of the earth’s geographical area, deforestation has resulted in the loss of 420 million hectares (mha) of forest between 1990 and 2020.
  • Despite the fact that deforestation was decreasing, between 2015 and 2020, 10 million hectares of forest were lost each year.
  • If no additional action is done, an estimated 289 million hectares of tropical forests will be deforested between 2016 and 2050, resulting in 169 GtCO2e emissions.
  • The total greenhouse gas emissions are measured in billions of tonnes of CO2 equivalent emissions per year (GtCO2e/year).

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. The  State of the World’s Forests report is published bi-annually and is widely regarded as one of the most important stock takes on forest ecosystems.

b. The 2022 edition of SOFO explores the potential of three forest pathways for achieving green recovery and tackling multidimensional planetary crises, including climate change and biodiversity loss.

Which of the following given statements is/are correct?

A. Only a 

B. Only b

C. Both a & b 

D. None of the above

Ans: C

Grey Slender Loris

Environment

A survey of Grey slender loris populations in Tamil Nadu’s Dindigul forest division was recently conducted by experts from the Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON) in Coimbatore.

What exactly is the Grey Slender Loris?

  • The Loridae family includes the Grey Slender Loris, a primate species.
  • It has a lean and lanky appearance with long and slender limbs, larger ears, a pointed snout, and eyes surrounded in black or dark brown.
  • The fur is fluffy and silky. The hues range from dark grey to earthy brown.
  • The Grey Slender Loris is a night-time creature. It’s also a slow-moving creature. It enters isolated groves or moves from one tree to another by coming down into the bushes to feed and crossing wide areas of ground.
  • Though it is insectivorous, it is fond of berries also.

Qs. Which of the following Indian states is habitat to the Grey Slender Loris species?

a. Andhra Pradesh

b. Karnataka

c. Kerala

d. Tamil Nadu

Code: 

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana

Polity

The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has updated the PMKGAY (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) rice and wheat distribution for five months — from May to September 2022 — for all 36 states/UTs.

What exactly is PMGKAY?

  • PMGKAY is a component of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP), which assists the poor in their fight against Covid-19.
  • The Ministry of Finance is its nodal ministry.
  • It was originally planned to run for three months (April, May, and June 2020), covering 80 million ration cardholders and was later extended to November 2020.
  • The scheme’s first and second phases were active from April to June 2020 and July to November 2020.
  • The scheme’s Phase III was operating from May to June 2021.
  • Phase IV of the scheme is currently operational for July-November 2021 months.

Qs. How much expenditure will the government incur for PMGKAY Phase I- V?

A. Rs.1.60 lakh Crore

B. Rs.1.80 lakh Crore

C. Rs.2.60 lakh Crore

D. Rs.2.80 lakh Crore

Ans: C

  • The government will be incurring an expenditure of nearly Rs.2.60 lakh Crore in PMGKAY Phase I- V. PMGKAY-V will entail an estimated additional food subsidy of Rs. 53344.52 Crore.

Direct Seeding of Rice

Environment

The Punjab government recently announced a Rs 1,500 per acre incentive for farmers who choose Direct Rice Seeding (DSR). In 2021, DSR covered 18% (5.62 lakh hectares) of the total rice acreage in the state, compared to the government’s goal of 10 lakh hectares.

What is DSR, and how does it differ from traditional paddy transplanting?

Paddy transplanting:

  • Farmers prepare nurseries where paddy seeds are first sowed and nurtured into young plants before transplanting paddy.
  • The nursery seedbed takes up 5-10% of the transplanted area.
  • These seedlings are then pulled and transplanted on the puddled land 25-35 days later.

Direct Seeding of Rice (DRS): In DSR, the pre-germinated seeds are directly drilled into the field by a tractor-powered machine. There is no nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method.

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for the methods used by DSR to Save water?

A. The DSR technique can help save 15% to 20% of water.

B. In some cases, water-saving can reach 22% to 23%.

C. With DSR, 13-16 irrigation rounds are required against 25 to 27 irrigation rounds in traditional methods.

D. DSR can save 810 to 1,080 billion litres of water every year if the entire rice crop is brought under the technique.

Ans: C

  • With DSR, 13-16 irrigation rounds are required against 25 to 27 irrigation rounds in traditional methods.

Venus Mission 2024

Science & Technology

The new Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) recently indicated that the Venus mission will be launched by December 2024.

The mission aims to investigate Venus’ toxic and corrosive atmosphere, which is covered with sulfuric acid clouds.

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announced two new robotic missions to Venus, DaVinci Plus and Veritas.

What are the Mission’s Primary Goals?

  • Surface processes and shallow subsurface strata are being investigated.
  • There has never been a previous observation of Venus’s subsurface.
  • Stratigraphy is the branch of geology that studies rock layers and layering.
  • The study of the atmosphere’s structure, composition, and motion.
  • Investigation of Solar wind interaction with Venusian ionosphere.

Qs. Which of the following is the incorrect combination of Missions Sent on Venus and the country?

A. Magellan – USA

B. Vegas – India

C. Akatsuki – Japan

D. Venus Express – Europe

Ans: B

  • USA – Mariner series 1962-1974, Pioneer Venus 1 and Pioneer Venus 2 in 1978, Magellan in 1989.
  • Russia – Venera series of space crafts 1967-1983, Vegas 1 and 2 in 1985.

Sagarmala Projects

Economy

During the launch of “Maritime India Vision 2030” in March 2021, the Prime Minister introduced the Sagarmala – Sagartat Samridhi Yojana.

The Ministry of Public Works and Social Welfare developed this extensive initiative to solve issues in the country’s coastal districts.

The Sagartat Samriddhi Yojna has identified 1,049 projects with a total cost estimate of Rs 3,62,229 crores.

The four key areas in which this initiative falls include:

  • Coastal Infrastructure Development
  • Coastal Tourism
  • Coastal Industrial Development
  • Coastal Community Development

What is Sagarmala Project?

The Union Cabinet authorised the Sagarmala Programme in 2015, which intends to modernise, mechanise, and computerise the port infrastructure along the 7,516-kilometre-long coastline.

Qs. Which sector is the focus of the Sagarmala Programme?

A. Port

B. Railways

C. Forest

D. Foreign Borders

Ans: A

PM MITRA Parks

Polity

A National Conference on PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks Scheme was held by the Ministry of Textiles.

What is the PM MITRA Parks Scheme?

  • A park will be created in a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode by a Special Purpose Vehicle owned by the Central and State Governments.
  • Each Park will contain an incubation centre, a common processing facility, a common effluent treatment plant, and other textile-related amenities, including design and testing centres.
  • The Industrial Park will be developed and maintained by the Master Developer throughout the concession period.
  • The centre would grant Rs 500 crore in development capital support for each greenfield MITRA park and up to Rs 200 crore for each brownfield park to build shared infrastructure.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. Brownfield describes an entirely new project that has to be executed from scratch, while the Greenfield project is one that others have worked on in the PM MITRA Parks Scheme.

b. India is the 6th largest producer of Technical Textiles with 6% Global Share, largest producer of cotton & jute in the world.

c. India is also the second largest producer of silk in the world and 95% of the world’s hand woven fabric comes from India.

Which of the above given statement is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Only c

D. None of the above

Ans: A

  • Greenfield describes a completely new project that has to be executed from scratch, while a brownfield project is one that has been worked on by others.

Inter-State Arrests

Polity

A recent arrest by Punjab Police of a politician sparked a dilemma as the Delhi Police filed a kidnapping complaint against the Punjab Police team. The ensuing controversy over the arrest has ignited a debate over police jurisdiction and inter-state collaboration.

What is the Procedure for Making Inter-State Arrests?

  • Entry 2, List II of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution puts ‘Police’ in the State list, implying that the state government will adjudicate upon all matters relating to police.

What does the Law say on Inter-state Arrests?

  • Section 79 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with inter-state arrests based on warrants issued by competent courts.
  • Section 48 of the CrPC gives the police such powers, but the procedure is not defined.

Qs. Under which article of the Indian Constitution, every person arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within twenty-four hours of such arrest?

A. Article 20

B. Article 21

C. Article 22

D. Article 23

Ans: C

World Food Prize 2022

Environment

According to the World Food Prize Foundation, Dr Cynthia Rosenzweig of the United States has been named the World Food Prize laureate for 2022. Rosenzweig won the prize for her work on understanding the relationship between climate and food systems and predicting how they may evolve in the future.

Objectives: The World Food Prize is the highest international prize given to people who have contributed to human development by enhancing the quality, quantity, or availability of food worldwide.

  • Every year in October, the prize is presented on or around UN World Food Day (16th October).
  • The World Food Prize Foundation, which has over 80 corporate, individual, and other donors, present it.
  • Des Moines, Iowa is home to the World Food Prize Foundation.
  • The laureate receives a sculpture designed by acclaimed artist and designer Saul Bass in addition to the cash award of USD 2,50,000.

Qs. Who won the World Food Prize in 2021?

A. Dr Cynthia Rosenzweig 

B. Dr. Shakuntala

C. Dr. Rattan Lal 

D. Dr. Norman E. Borlaug

Ans: B

  • In 2021 Leading nutrition expert Dr. Shakuntala Haraksingh Thilsted won the prize and in 2020 Indian-American soil scientist – Dr. Rattan Lal won the prize.

West Bank Settlements: Israel

Polity

The Israeli Supreme Court recently dismissed a petition challenging the displacement of over 1,000 Palestinians from a rural area of the occupied West Bank that Israel has designated for military operations. Tensions between Palestinians and Israeli police recently erupted at Jerusalem’s al-Aqsa Mosque.

What was the verdict?

  • The decision allows for the demolition of eight small settlements in a rocky, dry area near Hebron known to Palestinians as Masafer Yatta and to Israelis as the South Hebron Hills.
  • Residents of Masafer Yatta and Israeli rights organisations claim that many Palestinian families have lived in the 3,000-hectare area since Israel occupied the West Bank in the 1967 Six-Day War.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for the Six-Day War 1967?

a. The Six-Day War was between Israel and the Arab governments of Egypt, Syria, and Jordan in June 1967.

b. The West Bank is sandwiched between Israel and Jordan.

c. Egypt lost the Sinai Peninsula and Gaza Strip, Jordan lost the West Bank and East Jerusalem, and Syria lost the Golan Heights.

d. The regions acquired by Israel in the 1967 Six-Day War have been at the centre of efforts to end the Arab-Israeli conflict since 1967.

Code:

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

US’ Roe v. Wade Case 1973

Polity

The US Supreme Court has chosen to overrule Roe v. Wade, 1973, the court’s landmark 1973 decision that proclaimed abortion a constitutional right, according to a leak by political media firm Politico.

What is the Roe v. Wade decision?

  • The United States Supreme Court deemed abortion a constitutional right in the landmark Roe vs Wade decision in 1973, setting a precedent for abortion regulations worldwide.
  • In this decision, the United States Supreme Court overturned legislation making abortion unlawful in multiple states, ruling that abortion would be permitted up to foetal viability or the point at which a foetus may survive outside the womb.
  • At the time of the Roe decision, foetal viability was around 28 weeks (7 months), but experts now agree that improvements in medicine have lowered the threshold to 23 or 24 weeks (6 months or a little less).

Qs. The 1973 Roe v. Wade case in the United States represents which social issue?

A. Child Marriage

B. Human Traffic

C. LGBT

D. Abortion

Ans: D

Monkey Pox

Environment

Health officials in the United Kingdom recently identified a case of monkeypox, a rare viral infection related to smallpox, in a person who recently arrived from Nigeria.

  • Monkeypox is a viral zoonosis (a virus transmitted from animals to humans) with symptoms comparable to those seen in smallpox patients in the past; however, it is less severe clinically.
  • It has emerged as the most critical orthopox virus after the eradication of smallpox in 1980 and the consequent suspension of smallpox immunisation.
  • Variola (smallpox), monkeypox, vaccinia (which includes buffalopox), and cowpox are the four species of Orthopoxvirus that infect humans.
  • Monkeypox is caused by the monkeypox virus, which belongs to the Orthopoxvirus genus and belongs to the Poxviridae family.
  • Background: Monkey Pox was initially found in 1958, following two outbreaks of a pox-like disease in research colonies of monkeys — hence the term “monkeypox.”
  • Fever, redness, and enlarged lymph nodes are the most common symptoms of monkeypox.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. Monkey Pox infection was first discovered in 1948.

b. The first human case was recorded in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC).

c. Monkeypox is a viral zoonosis (a virus transmitted to humans from animals).

d. Monkeypox is caused by the monkeypox virus, a member of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the family Poxviridae.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. b, c & d

Ans: D

Cyclone Asani

Environment

Cyclone Asani is expected to grow into a severe cyclone over the Southeast portions of the Bay of Bengal, according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

Sri Lanka has given the storm the name Cyclone Asani. In Sinhalese, it signifies “wrath.”

Tauktae, Yaas, Nisarga, and Amphan are cyclones that will hit India in 2020-21.

How Frequently Do Cyclones Occur in India?

  • The cyclone season in India occurs twice a year, from March to May and October to December and in rare circumstances, strikes between June and September.
  • After tropical cyclone Daye in 2018 and Pyarr in 2005, cyclone Gulab became the third cyclone of the twenty-first century to make landfall over the east coast in September.
  • Tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal) are common.
  • The IMD classifies cyclones on the basis of the Maximum Sustained Surface Wind Speed (MSW) they generate.
  • The cyclones are classified as severe (MSW of 48-63 knots), very severe (MSW of 64-89 knots), extremely severe (MSW of 90-119 knots) and super cyclonic storm (MSW of 120 knots or more). One knot is equal to 1.8 kmph (kilometres per hour).

Qs. The IMD classifies cyclones based on the MSW they generate. Expand MSW.

A. Maximum Sustained Surface Wind Speed 

B. Maximum Sustained Speed Wind Surface 

C. Maximum Sustained Speed Wind Survey 

D. Maximum Sustained Surface Wind Survey

Ans: A 

Heatwaves and Wet Bulb Temperature

Environment 

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) recently released Report AR6 (Sixth Assessment Report), which emphasises the importance of humidity in determining the physiological stress that high heat places on the human body.

  • To assess exposure to high heat, an alternative metric known as the “wet-bulb temperature” has been employed instead of the “dry bulb” temperature, which is generally measured using a regular thermometer.
  • The worrisome habit of smashing previous temperature records has continued over South Asia since March 2022.
  • A heatwave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature, that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western and South Central parts of India.
  • Heatwaves typically occur between March and June, and sometimes even extend till July.
  • The heatwave is considered when the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for Wet Bulb Temperature?

a. Wet bulb temperature is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled by the evaporation of water into the air at a constant pressure.

b. WBT is a limit that considers heat and humidity beyond which humans can not tolerate high temperatures.

c. The Wet Bulb temperature is the temperature of adiabatic saturation. 

d. Wet Bulb temperature can be measured by using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin.

Code:

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Tissue Culture Plants

Environment 

Recently, the Centre through the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) conducted a webinar on “Export Promotion of Tissue Culture Plants’’ such as Foliage, Live Plants, Cut Flowers, and Planting Material” with Department of Biotechnology (DBT) accredited tissue culture laboratories spread across India.

  • The aim is to boost exports of tissue culture plants.

What is Tissue Culture?

  • It is the production of new plants from a small piece of plant tissue or cells removed from the growing tips of a plant in a suitable growth medium.
  • In this process the growth medium or culture solution is very important as it is used for growing plant tissue because it contains various plant nutrients in the form of ‘jelly’ known as agar and plant hormones which are necessary for the growth of plants.

Qs. Which of the following countries are not included in the list of top ten countries importing tissue culture plants from India?

A. Netherlands – USA – Italy 

B. Australia – Canada – Japan

C. Kenya – Senegal – Ethiopia 

D. Nepal – China – Italy

Ans: D

Ethanol Blending

Economy

In India, the percentage of ethanol in gasoline has reached 9.99%.

What is Ethanol Blending?

  • Ethanol is a major biofuel created naturally by yeast fermentation of carbohydrates or through petrochemical processes such as ethylene hydration.
  • Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) aims to reduce the country’s reliance on imported crude oil, reduce carbon emissions, and increase farmer incomes.
  • The Indian government has pushed back the deadline for blending 20% ethanol into gasoline (commonly known as E20) from 2030 to 2025.

Qs. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following cannot be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? 

a. Cassava

b. Damaged wheat grains

c. Groundnut seeds

d. Horse gram

Code:

A. a & c

B. a & d

C. b & c

D. c & d 

Ans: D

National Commission for Minorities 2022

Government Policies

The Central Government established the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) in 1992 under the National Commission for Minorities Act.

Under the National Commission for Minorities Act, the Union Government formed the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) in 1992. The Commission would be comprised of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson, and five members who would be chosen by the Central Government from among individuals of distinction, talent, and integrity, with five members, including the Chairperson, coming from minority communities by the statute.

Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis), and Jains are six religious groups the Union Government of India has recognised as minority communities in its gazette.

The first five religious communities to receive notification were the Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, Christians, and Muslims in 1993; the Jains were later added in 2014. These six communist nations make up 18.8% of the nation’s population, per the 2001 Census.

The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) upholds the United Nations Declaration of December 18, 1992, which implies that “States shall protect the existence of minorities’ national or ethnic, cultural, religious, and linguistic identities within their respective territories and encourage conditions for their promotion.”

Qs. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities 2021?

A. Shri Iqbal Singh Lalpura

B. Shri Siddharth Kishore Dev Verman

C. Shri Daniel E. Richards

D. Ms Syed Shahezadi

Ans: A

Karnataka Chief Minister Basavaraj Bommai Launched AAYU App

Government Policies

Karnataka Chief Minister Basavaraj Bommai has introduced a new yoga-based health and wellness app called AAYU to address and treat chronic illnesses and lifestyle issues.

Together with RESET TECH, an AI-driven integrated health-tech platform that seeks to treat chronic illnesses and lifestyle problems through yoga and meditation, Swami Vivekananda Yoga Anusandhana Samsthana (S-VYASA) developed the App.

About the App:

  1. The App would provide consumers with individualised health solutions, offer doctor consultations based on a person’s specific history, and track their progress to help them heal and recover faster.
  2. The App would give users personalised health and medical advice based on their individual histories, track their progress, and help them mend and recover more quickly.
  3. Within the next five years, the App, available in several languages, hopes to influence more than five million individuals with chronic diseases.
  4. Beyond providing only short-term care, the App helps recover lost health by addressing the underlying causes of the ailments. 
  5. It will also try to treat illnesses brought on by lifestyle issues that have afflicted people for many years.

Qs. Which of the following state government launched the  AAYU App in collaboration with (S-VYASA)?

A. Jharkhand

B. Bihar

C. Karnataka

D. Tamil Nadu

Ans: C

Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme extended through FY26

 Government Policies

The union ministry of MSME announced that the PM’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) had been extended for an additional five years through FY26.

The PMEGP has been authorised for continuation during the 15th Finance Commission Cycle for five years, 2021–2022 to 2025–2026, with an outlay of Rs 13,554.42 crore, according to a statement from the union ministry of micro, small, and medium enterprises.

KEY POINTS:

  1. The extension will cause changes to the new scheme. The maximum project cost for manufacturing units has been raised from $25 lakh to $50 lakh, while for service units, it has been raised from $10 lakh to $20 lakh.
  2. The definitions of rural area and village industry have also been changed for the scheme. The statement claims that regions governed by Panchayati Raj institutions will be categorised as rural, and areas under municipal control will be categorised as urban.
  3. Whether in the city or the country, all implementing agencies are permitted to accept and manage applications.
  4. Additionally, transgender candidates and PMEGP applicants from aspirational districts would be recognised as special category applicants and be qualified for a higher subsidy.
  5. The project will, according to the company, offer nearly 40 lakh people opportunities for stable employment over the following five years.
  6. The margin money subsidy under the scheme would be 25% of the project cost in urban areas and 35% of the project cost in rural areas for candidates who fall under a special category, such as SC, ST, OBC, women, transgender, physically challenged, applicants from the north-eastern region, aspirational, and border district candidates.
  7. For applicants in the general category, the subsidy amounts to 15% of the project cost in urban areas and 25% in rural areas.

Qs. The PM’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) falls under which of the following commission?

A. Planning Commission

B. Finance Commission

C. National Commission for Employment

D. National Commission for Minorities

Ans: B

India won the first-ever medal at the IBSA Judo Grand Prix

Sports

India won its first-ever medal in the IBSA Judo Grand Prix in Nur Sultan, Kazakhstan. It’s important to note that medals were won by 18 of the 21 competing nations.

India won its first-ever medal at the IBSA Judo Grand Prix in Nur Sultan, Kazakhstan. Judoka Kapil Parmar of the Indian Blind and Para Judo Association deserves sincere praise for bringing medals to the nation. 

THE KEY POINTS

  1. The J1 and J2 divisions, which will compete separately, were created due to the International Paralympic Committee’s decision to create a new division for blind or visually impaired judokas following the Paralympic Games in Tokyo.
  2. Additional weight categories and medal events were introduced along with these new divisions.
  3. There will be 16 medal events in Paris, and we anticipate the competition to be even more equal than it has been in the past.
  4. Finally, there is the same number of weight divisions for men and women, putting both genders on an even playing field.
  5. With eight categories on the schedule, seven nations won gold medals on the opening day. The only team to win twice was Turkey.

Qs. Which of the following country is the only team to win twice the IBSA Judo Grand Prix?

A. India

B. Kazakhstan

C. Turkey

D. Tokyo

Ans: C

Red Bull’s Sergio Perez won Monaco F1 Grand Prix 2022

Sports

At the Circuit de Monaco in Monaco, Europe, Mexican racer Sergio Pérez of Red Bull Racing won the Formula 1 (F1) Grand Prix (GP) De Monaco 2022 with 25 points. The event happened on May 27 through May 29, 2022. Sergio Pérez wins the Monaco Grand Prix, becoming the first Mexican and North American to do so since Gilles Villeneuve in 1981.

Carlos Sainz Jr., a Spanish racing driver for Ferrari, finished in second place with 18 points. Max Emilian Verstappen, a Belgian-Dutch race car driver who competed for Red Bull Racing, finished in third place. Charles Leclerc, a Monacan racer who competed for Ferrari, came in fourth place. The victory was Sergio Perez’s first of the year, ending Verstappen and Leclerc’s dominance, and the third of his career, surpassing Pedro Rodriguez as the most successful Mexican F1 driver.

Qs. Who finished in second place with 18 points in the Red Bull Racing won the Formula 1 (F1) Grand Prix (GP) De Monaco 2022?

A. Carlos Sainz Jr.

B. Max Emilian Verstappen

C. Sergio Pérez 

D. Charles Leclerc

Ans: A

Supreme Court – Recommendations of GST Council are not binding

Economy

Recently, the Supreme Court, in Union of India vs Mohit Minerals Pvt Ltd, held that the recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on either the Centre or the States. 

Supreme Court (SC) judgment on GST framework 

According to the latest judgment, both the Parliament and the State legislatures possess simultaneous power to legislate on GST as the Recommendations of the GST Council are only persuasive (not binding). Article 279A doesn’t specifically mention that all GST Council decisions are binding on the parties. Article 246A empowers Parliament as well as State legislatures to make laws relating to GST, i.e., GST Council decisions are not enforceable, and the Centre or State can reject the GST Council decisions and set different rates for goods and services in their jurisdiction.

The bench stated that Article 279A of the Constitution does not begin with a non-obstante clause, and Article 246A does not envisage a repugnancy provision.

About Goods and Services Tax (GST).

 GST is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based single domestic tax on the consumption of goods and services introduced in the country w.e.f. 1st July 2017. It was introduced through the Constitution (One Hundred and First (101st) Amendment) Act, 2016, for one tax rate across the country. 

It subsumed several indirect taxes like excise duty, VAT, service tax, luxury tax etc., on goods and services with few items left out, such as Excise Duty on Alcohol, Property Tax & Stamp Duty, Petroleum crude, Diesel, Petrol, Aviation Turbine Fuel, Natural Gas, Electricity Duty, Basic Custom Duty, etc. 

Article 246A (1) gave the Parliament and Legislature of every State power to make laws concerning goods and services tax imposed by the Union or by such State. o For inter-State trade or commerce (Article 246A (2)), the Parliament has exclusive power.

Qs. Which of the following Amendments introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) concept in 2016?

A. 101 Amendment Act

B. 102  Amendment Act

C. 103 Amendment Act

D. 104 Amendment Act

Ans: A

SCO terror meet with officials from China, Pakistan and Russia in Delhi

International Relations

The Regional Anti-Terror Structure (SCO-RATS) talks of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization began on Monday with a meeting of counterterrorism officials from Pakistan, Russia, China, and four Central Asian nations in Delhi. 

After China’s transgressions along the Line of Actual Control and Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, this was the first such event in India. The meeting, off-limits to the media, is one of many activities scheduled this year as India began serving as the SCO-RATS mechanism’s Chairperson.

The NSG base in Manesar is slated to host joint anti-terror drills in October, for which all member nations would send security force personnel. Although there is almost any bilateral interaction between India and Pakistan, both countries make a point of attending the meetings of the nine-nation SCO. In addition, India dispatched a group to Pakistan last year to participate in the SCO-RATS exercises. And everyone’s attention will be focused on 2023 when India is scheduled to host the SCO summit, which may attract leaders of China and Pakistan despite the tense bilateral relations.

About Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) 

  • It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation founded in 2001 in Shanghai (China) 2001 by Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyz Republic, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. 
  • In June 2017, Astana, India and Pakistan were granted the full status of SCO members. 
  •  SCO counts four observer states: the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, the Islamic Republic of Iran, and Mongolia.

Qs. Which of the following country granted the full status of SCO members in 2017?

A. Astana, India and  Uzbekistan

B. Iran, India and Pakistan

C. Astana, Belarus, and Pakistan

D. Astana, India and Pakistan

Ans: D

INS Gomati decommissioned at Naval Dockyard in Mumbai

Defence

Under Captain Sudip Malik’s leadership, INS Gomati was decommissioned at the Naval Dockyard. INS Gomati was commissioned on April 16, 1988, at Mazgaon Dock Ltd. in Bombay by the then-Defense Minister, KC Pant. Her name is derived from the colourful river Gomti. When it was decommissioned, the third Godavari class guided-missile frigate, INS Gomati, was also a veteran of the western fleet.

In addition to several bilateral and international naval drills, INS Gomati took part in operations like Cactus, Parakram, and Rainbow. In 2007–2008 and again in 2019–20, IMS Gomati received the coveted Unit Citation for its outstanding spirit and service to national maritime security.

After the INS Gomati decommissioning:

The ship’s legacy will be preserved at an outdoor museum built in Lucknow along the picturesque banks of the river Gomti, where a few of her fighting systems will be on exhibit as historical artefacts.

Qs.  Which year was INS Gomati commissioned?

A. 1986

B. 1987

C. 1988

D. 1989

Ans: C

Abhilasha Barak becomes the Indian Army’s first woman combat aviator

Defence

Captain Abhilasha Barak of Haryana has completed her training and is now the first female officer to join the Army Aviation Corps as a combat aviator. Along with 36 other army pilots, she received the coveted wings from the DG and Colonel Commandant of Army Aviation in Nashik. She is a member of the 2072 Army Aviation Squadron’s second flight. 2018 saw her graduate from Chennai’s Officers Training Academy and be commissioned into the Indian Army.

Captain Abhilasha Barak’s career:

A graduate of The Lawrence School, Sanawar, is Captain Barak. She graduated from Delhi Technological University in 2016 with a B-Tech in Electronics and Communication Engineering and was hired by Deloitte in the United States.

President Ram Nath Kovind chose her to serve as a contingent commander for the Presentation of Colors to Army Air Defence while she was attached to the Corps of Army Air Defence.

Qs. Who became the Indian Army’s first woman combat aviator?

A. Rajshree Ramasethu

B. Abhilasha Barak

C. Arti Sarin

D. Madhuri Kanitkar 

Ans: B

Indian Navy – Bangladesh Navy Bilateral EX Bongosagar

Defence

On May 24, 2022, Port Mongla in Bangladesh hosted the start of the third iteration of the bilateral exercise “Bongosagar” between the Indian and Bangladeshi navies.

Beginning on May 24 and 25, the exercise’s Harbour Phase will be followed by a Sea Phase in the Northern Bay of Bengal on May 26 and 27.

Bongosagar Exercise:

Through the performance of a broad range of maritime exercises and operations between the two navies, Exercise Bongosagar aims to achieve a high degree of interoperability and combined operational skills.

The Indian Naval Ships Kora, a Guided Missile Corvette, and Sumedha, an Offshore Patrol Vessel are being taken part in the exercise. The two guided missile frigates BNS Abu Ubaidah and Ali Haider, are standing in for the Bangladesh Navy.

Along with tactical-level planning conversations regarding the execution of the exercises at sea, the exercise’s harbour phase also involves professional and social exchanges as well as friendly sporting competitions. During the exercise’s sea phase, ships from both navy would be able to participate in rigorous surface warfare drills, weapon firing practise, seamanship advancements, and coordinated air operations in a tactical scenario.

Qs. Which of the following countries are the correct combination for the bilateral exercise “Bongosagar”?

A. India – Belarus

B. Bangladesh – Srilanka

C. India – Bangladesh

D. Bangladesh – Pakistan

Ans: C

IAF ranks third on World Air Power Index

Defence

According to the World Air Might Index, which measures the fighting power of several air force services from various nations, the Indian Air Force (IAF) is ranked third. 

Global Air Power Rankings were released by the World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft (WDMMA) in 2022. The French Air and Space Power, the Israeli Aviation Based Armed Forces, the Chinese Air Force, and the People’s Libertarian Army Air Force (PLAAF) are all ranked ahead of the Indian Air Force in this report.

On October 8th, 1932, the Indian Air Force was founded. The first ac flight took out on April 1st, 1933, with six RAF-trained officers and 19 Havai Sepoys (air soldiers). 

Operation Vijay, Operation Meghdoot, Operation Cactus, and Operation Poomalai are a few crucial operations the IAF has carried out. Since 1950, the IAF has fought four significant conflicts with Pakistan. The Armed Forces Act of 1947, the Indian Constitution, and The Air Force Act of 1950 all outline the IAF’s mission.

World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft, or WDMMA, tracks around 98 countries with 124 air services and a total of 47,840 aircraft. WDMMA uses the ‘TrueValueRating’ formula or TVR formula, which helps them to separate the air forces based on overall strength and some important elements like modernisation, assault, guard abilities, calculating help, and some other factors. According to the WDMMA report, India has 1,645 active aircraft.

Qs. Which of the following country topped the ranking on World Air Power Index 2022?

A. India

B. Pakistan

C. United States

D. China

Ans: D

Project WARDEC 

Defence

A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed by the Army Training Command and Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU), which has its headquarters in Gandhinagar, to create a Wargame Research and Development Center in New Delhi. India’s first simulation-based training facility would employ artificial intelligence (AI) to produce virtual reality wargames. The project is known as “WARDEC” as a prototype.

The metaverse, which combines virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR) to mimic its surroundings, will put soldiers’ skills to the test.

The Army intends to use the gaming facility to instruct officers on military strategy.

  • According to RRU authorities, the Army will provide information to create the game’s background so players have an authentic experience.
  • Along with the armed forces, the BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB can gain from metaverse-enabled simulation exercises for improved training.
  • By recreating a battlefield as precisely as possible and mapping many situations in the unlikely event of a war, AI can provide a realistic training experience.
  • During the Hague Summit in March 2014, several world leaders—including former US President Barack Obama, former German Chancellor Angela Merkel, and current Chinese President Xi Jinping—played a war simulation game about how to respond in the case of a nuclear attack. In such a case, the nuclear attack was directed towards the hypothetical nation of Brinia.

The Army will use the Wargame Research and Development Center to train troops and test strategies using “metaverse-enabled games.”

Qs. What is the name of India’s first simulation-based training facility would employ artificial intelligence (AI) to produce virtual reality wargames?

A. WARARM

B. WARIAF

C. WARIND

D. WARDEC

Ans: D

4th edition of India-Bangladesh Navy Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT)

Defence

The fourth edition of the coordinated patrol between the Indian and Bangladeshi navies (CORPAT) got underway. The patrolling exercise would continue between May 22 and 23 in the northern Bay of Bengal. Together, the two units will patrol the International Maritime Boundary Line. In October 2020, the final IN-BN CORPAT was conducted.

During patrols, the warships of the Bangladesh Navy, BNS Ali Haider and BNS Abu Ubaidah, as well as the indigenous warships of the Indian Navy, INS Kora and INS Sumedha, would come into contact with the water. During CORPAT, the two navies’ maritime patrol aircraft will also patrol along the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL). Regular CORPAT operations have improved communication between the two fleets and their ability to work together to combat transnational maritime threats at sea.

Qs. The fourth edition of the Indian Navy and _________ Navy Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) commenced on May 2022.

A. Indonesia

B. Bangladesh

C. Nepal

D. Russia

Ans: B

Indian Army’s First Green Solar Energy harnessing plant in Sikkim

Defence

The Indian Army recently launched the first Green Solar Energy harnessing plant in Sikkim. It was launched to benefit the troops of the Indian army.

About the plant

  • The plant uses Vanadium based battery technology.
  • It was built at an altitude of 16,000 feet.
  • The capacity of the plant is 56 KVA.
  • It was completed in collaboration with IIT Mumbai.

Other green initiatives of Indian Army

  • The Indian Army recently (April, 2021) launched a solar power plant at Jalandhar Cantonment. It was launched on the World Earth Day. Also, it was launched as a part of the “Go Green” initiative.
  • The plant was constructed at a cost of Rs 5.16 crores.
  • It was dedicated to the military hospital in the cantonment.
  • The plant was set up in five acres of land.
  • The project has installed 3,176 solar panels of Indian origin to produce 1MW of solar energy.
  • It is expected that the project will produce 15 lakh units of solar power annually and will help save Rs 1 crore per year.

Vanadium was found in Arunachal Pradesh in January 2021. This was the country of India’s first vanadium discovery. India uses 4% of the world’s total vanadium production. Vanadium is used to create steel alloys, nuclear reactors, spacecraft, and other things. Additionally, it’s used to create piston rods and girders. Superconducting magnets employ vanadium redox batteries as their power source. They are also employed in the production of dependable renewable energy sources.

Qs. What is the color of vanadium battery technology used in the First Green Solar Energy?

A. Silver

B. Magenta

C. Black

D. Gold

Ans: A

PESCO: EU approves US participation for the first time

Defence

The United States, Canada, and Norway recently received approval from the European Union to join the Permanent Structured Cooperation (PESCO) defence effort. The European Union has never before permitted a third country to take part in the PESCO programme. The nations will now take part in the European Military Mobility Project.

What is PESCO?

It is a part of the European Union’s security and defence policy. It was introduced based on the Treaty of the European Union introduced by the Treaty of Lisbon in 2009.

PESCO and NATO

Around four-fifths of the PESCO members are also NATO members. NATO is North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.

US And PESCO, The United States, have raised concerns against PESCO several times. According to analysts, it is a sign that the US fears a loss of influence in Europe. The US sells 1 billion Euros of weapons to the European Union countries every year.

The Military Mobility Project will facilitate the mobility of military units throughout the European Union by enhancing the infrastructure and removing administrative obstacles. It mostly centres on two issues: the need for advance notice and bureaucratic obstacles (such as passport inspections). Military personnel can deploy quickly andly during a NATO emergency. However, a warning is needed in advance during times of calm.

Qs. Which of the following country participated in the Permanent Structured Cooperation (PESCO) defence initiative?

A. Norway, Canada and the United States

B. Norway, India and the United States

C. Norway, Russia and the United States

D. Norway, Canada and Norway

Ans: A

NSA commissioned Vessel Sajag

Defence

National Security Advisor (NSA), Ajit Doval, has commissioned the Indian Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessel Sajag. It was a dedicated nation to safeguarding maritime interests.

The offshore Patrol Vessel, Sajag, was built by Goa Shipyard Limited. The NSA received praise for creating on-site ships for the Maritime Armed Forces using cutting-edge machinery, modern sensors, and equipment.

Patrol Boat

It is a tiny navy vessel made for coastal defence, enforcing immigration laws, guarding borders, and performing search and rescue missions. They can be used in marine, estuary, or river environments and operated by the Navy, coast guard, police, or customs. They are frequently employed in border protection tasks like fisheries patrols, anti-piracy, anti-smuggling, and immigration law enforcement.

Importance of Patrol Boats

Inshore patrol vessels (IPVs) and offshore patrol vessels are two categories of patrol boats (OPVs). Fast assault craft, missile boats, and torpedo boats are some smaller vessels that fall under this category. In the Navy, offshore patrol boats are the smallest ships. They can, however, patrol offshore because they are substantial and seaworthy.

Qs. The offshore Patrol Vessel, Sajag, was built by which of the following Shipyard Limited?

A. Goa

B. Kochi

C. Gujarat

D. Visakhapatnam

Ans: A

GRSE launches Indian Navy survey vessel ‘INS Nirdeshak’

Defence

The second of the four Survey Vessels (Large) (SVL) projects, Nirdeshak, was launched at Kattupalli, Chennai, by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) in partnership with L&T Shipbuilding. The ship was named after the former Nirdeshak, an Indian Naval Survey vessel that served for 32 years in admirable service before decommissioning in December 2014.

As part of a cooperative effort between GRSE and L&T shipbuilding, some construction of three of the SVL’s four ships is being done there. This Public-Private Partnership model will serve as a sign of future fruitful cooperation in India’s shipbuilding industry. On October 30, 2018, the MoD and GRSE, Kolkata, signed an agreement to construct four SVL ships. At GRSE in Kolkata, the first ship of its kind, the “Sandhayak,” was launched in December 2021.

Qs. What is the name of the second of the four Survey Vessels (Large) (SVL) projects being built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)?

A. Sandhayak

B. Nirdeshak

C. Samadhan

D. Sainik

Ans: B

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